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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 03:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no way Republican Trump won all seven swing states. How was he able to cheat and steal the election?

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why are we explaining today’s “climate change” as driven by human related “green house” gasses when natural “global warming” pushed sea level up to the “shores” of Topeka with no human contribution or even presence? Is Occam’s Rasor applied?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

I'm British and I hate my glasses. Are prescription glasses better in New York City?

There's no rule.